Home > Arts & Humanities > History > Why did Bismarck want to exclude Austrian from his new united German Empire, while Hitler wanted to include Austria to his Nazi Germany?

Why did Bismarck want to exclude Austrian from his new united German Empire, while Hitler wanted to include Austria to his Nazi Germany?

  • Best Answer
    In the late 1800's Austria was a vast empire unto itself and it was a rival of Prussia/Germany, not a friend.

    Whereas on the other hand, Hitler was born in Austria and after WW1 the Austro-Hungarian Empire had been broken up and Austria was a small and weak country. Austrians were also a Germanic people and Hitler wanted to unite all Germans into one country under his leadership.
    Proud Deplorable · 0 0
  • Other Answer
  • Austria was already included in a major empire, namely the Austro-Hungarian empire. They were Germany's rivals at the time.
    Proud Deplorable · 0 0
  • Your confused. Hilter didn't include "Austria" he included "land". He had murdered most Austrian.

    Bismark? He wasn't a murderer.

    Now what's the question? Oh yes. In what way did Bismark or Hitler represent Germany or Germans?

    Hilter was a Nazi which is a political party kinda like the Democrats here.

    Do you think the united States Democrats and Republicans represent the united States population?

    You don't consider either of them 'nazi' parties?

    Why not?
    john · 2 0
  • Because during Bismarck's era, Austria wasn't as weak as it was during Hitler's, so the idea that he could just "include" it was not practical.
    The Lord Humungus. · 0 2
  • Different people.
    T D · 1 0
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